Friends,
Its a given that increases testosterone manifests itself in higher none levels. But does increased none usage cause an increase in sexual desire?
I would find it rather confusing for the body to absorb none products which attract women for sex, yet leave a man without desire to take action on this.
For example if you have high test, spray on some none, you will attract more women especially those ovulating or comfortable with you for sex and you can capitalize on the none spray.
But if you apply none when your not horny ( say a man over 35 y.o) and it attracts women but the none doesn't put you in the mood this would be rather confusing wouldn't it?
Yet a man 80 years old can spray none all over him attract younger women and look more sexually appealing but still can't get aroused.. What do you make of this?
Too little none used in such a case? Or no similarity between none and sex drive? I say drive not erection as the two are mutually exclusive.
Its a given that increases testosterone manifests itself in higher none levels. But does increased none usage cause an increase in sexual desire?
I would find it rather confusing for the body to absorb none products which attract women for sex, yet leave a man without desire to take action on this.
For example if you have high test, spray on some none, you will attract more women especially those ovulating or comfortable with you for sex and you can capitalize on the none spray.
But if you apply none when your not horny ( say a man over 35 y.o) and it attracts women but the none doesn't put you in the mood this would be rather confusing wouldn't it?
Yet a man 80 years old can spray none all over him attract younger women and look more sexually appealing but still can't get aroused.. What do you make of this?
Too little none used in such a case? Or no similarity between none and sex drive? I say drive not erection as the two are mutually exclusive.